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Point at which to evaluate the derivative (any real number).

Formula

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Results

First Derivative of Softplus
0.622459
phi'(x) at x = 0.5
Input x 0.5
Formula phi'(x) = 1 / (1 + e^(-x))
Range 0 < phi'(x) < 1

What is the Softplus First Derivative Calculator?

This tool computes the first derivative of the Softplus activation function at any real input value x. The Softplus function, defined as \(\phi(x) = \ln(1 + e^x)\), is a smooth, differentiable approximation of the ReLU (Rectified Linear Unit) function used widely in neural networks. Its derivative is exactly the logistic sigmoid function, which makes it especially convenient in gradient-based training.

How to use it

Enter the value of x at which you want to evaluate the derivative and submit. The calculator returns \(\phi'(x)\), a number that always lies strictly between 0 and 1. Positive inputs push the result toward 1, negative inputs push it toward 0, and an input of exactly 0 yields 0.5.

The formula explained

Differentiating the Softplus function gives:

$$\frac{d}{dx}\ln\!\left(1 + e^{x}\right) = \frac{e^{x}}{1 + e^{x}} = \frac{1}{1 + e^{-x}}.$$

This is the logistic sigmoid \(\sigma(x)\). To keep the computation numerically stable, the calculator uses \(\frac{1}{1 + e^{-x}}\) for \(x \geq 0\) and the equivalent \(\frac{e^{x}}{1 + e^{x}}\) for \(x < 0\), avoiding overflow of the exponential for large-magnitude inputs.

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Softplus function and its sigmoid-shaped first derivative on the same axes
The softplus curve (rising hockey-stick) and its first derivative, the S-shaped sigmoid.

Worked example

Let \(x = 0.5\). Then \(e^{-0.5} = 0.6065306597\), so \(1 + e^{-0.5} = 1.6065306597\). Therefore $$\phi'(0.5) = \frac{1}{1.6065306597} = 0.622459.$$ The derivative is just above 0.5 because the input is slightly positive.

FAQ

Why is the derivative the sigmoid function? Because the chain rule applied to \(\ln(1 + e^x)\) simplifies algebraically to \(\frac{1}{1 + e^{-x}}\), the standard logistic sigmoid.

What is the range of phi'(x)? It is the open interval \((0, 1)\). The value approaches 0 as x goes to negative infinity and 1 as x goes to positive infinity, but never reaches either bound.

Is there any divide-by-zero risk? No. Since \(1 + e^{-x}\) is always greater than zero for every real x, the denominator can never be zero.

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